Why do you think that Jesus asked his father why has he forsaken him while on the cross? Just wandered how others view this statement.

My take on it is like this - because Jesus is part of the one true god - he was in constant union with the father while on earth (compare Jn 3:13 [KJV] "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven." ) So when Jesus took our sins upon himself (Isa 53:6 "All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.") he broke that fellowship because God is so holy he cannot look upon sin (Hab 1:13 "Thou art of purer eyes than to behold evil, and canst not look on iniquity: wherefore lookest thou upon them that deal treacherously, and holdest thy tongue when the wicked devoureth the man that is more righteous than he?"). & the fact that the sky went dark while Jesus was on the cross seems to back that theory up. But in all actuality Jesus may have not have said that for his own benefit but for ours; as it is a quote of 22 Ps 1. A major emphasis is put on how believers are to be conformed to the image of Christ & how we are to follow in his steps - well in the literal sence this enables us to ask God questions when we feel discouraged in the mission that he has placed us in. Jesus was reminding us that in our hour of need we can always go to our father in prayer.

Slade,

Thank You for your response. That is how I have interpreted this also. That Jesus bored all sins of believers. But I never thought that God could not look upon sin so he had to forsake him momentarily. I thought that wile Jesus bored the sins that he might have temporally became all sins and saying this in sin. But thinking about it Jesus never would sin.


God Bless

Marc

Your quite welcome, anything I can do to be of service.
Indeed Jesus never sinned (1 Pet 2:22 "Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:") but he was a propitiation [pro•pi•ti•ate \pro-"pi-she-'at\ vb -at•ed; -at•ing : to gain or regain the favor of : appease — pro•pi•ti•a•tion \-'pi-she-"a-shen\ n — pro•pi•tia•to•ry \-"pi-she-e-'tor-e\ adj (c)2000 Zane Publishing, Inc. and Merriam-Webster, Incorporated.](1 Jn 4:10 "Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.") or appeasment for our sins; because another scripture (most likely in Ezekiel) says "The soul that sinneth it shall die" & death, the puinishment for commiting sin, is seperation from God.
As far as God the father actually forsaking him & it not being just a figure of speech based on that quote of the 22'nd Pslam (remember david also said in the 139th Psalm:
"7 Whither shall I go from thy spirit? or whither shall I flee from thy presence?
8 If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: if I make my bed in hell, behold, thou art there.
9 If I take the wings of the morning, and dwell in the uttermost parts of the sea;
10 Even there shall thy hand lead me, and thy right hand shall hold me.
11 If I say, Surely the darkness shall cover me; even the night shall be light about me.
12 Yea, the darkness hideth not from thee; but the night shineth as the day: the darkness and the light are both alike to thee.")
I am not totally sure because of the scripture that says "Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever." (Heb 13:8) so if Jesus was ever in union with God the father he would always be such; & if he was ever in disunion then he would always be such. I think that most likely God was never in disunion with the son but he had to be in order to fulfill that scripture I mentioned that God can't look at sin; it's one of those questions that the precise mechanics of it will have to be revealed to us by God who's ways are higher than our ways & his thoughts are likewise.

This message has been edited. Last edited by: Slade,

Marckc,

I think Slade spoke so accurately when he said:

“BUT IN ALL ACTUALITY JESUS MAY HAVE NOT HAVE SAID THAT FOR HIS OWN BENEFIT BUT FOR OURS; AS IT IS A QUOTE OF 22 PS 1.”

Psalm 22 begins with “My God, my God, why has Thou forsaken me?” and ends with “He has performed it.” (In other words “It is finished!”

It is my opinion that Jesus was merely drawing those who had “an ear to hear” to Psalm 22 so they would recognize Who He is – their Messiah! They most likely had this psalm memorized. Instantly, they would recognize the significance of His words.

In my opinion, it has no other significance and God did not “forsake” Jesus while on the tree.

Psalm 22:1 “My God, my God, why has Thou forsaken me?

Psalm 22: 6-8 “But I am a worm, and not a man, A reproach of men, and despised by the people. All who see me sneer at me; They separate with the lip, they wag the head, saying, Commit thyself to the Lord; let Him deliver him; Let Him rescue him, because He delights in him.”

Psalm 22:14-18 “ I am poured out like water, And all my bones are out of joint; My heart is like wax; It is melted within me. My strength is dried up like a potsherd, And my tongue cleaves to my jaws; And Thou doest lay me in the dust of death. For dogs have surrounded me; A band of evildoers has encompassed me; They pierced my hands and my feet. I can count all my bones. They look, they stare at me; They divide my garments among them, And for my clothing they cast lots.

Psalm 22:31 “They will come and will declare His righteousness To a people who will be born, that He has performed it.”

Blessings,

Chelki

I am still unsure as I said of the precise mechanics because there is another scripture that says "Let God be true but every man a liar" (somewhere in romans) so when Jesus (part of God) said "My God My God why have thou forsaken me?" he wasn't lying. But Chelki's point that it was to let ppl know that he was the messiah is a good & valid one (that I previously missed, thx).

Hi, Family.
I agree totally with Chelki. I first came accross this line of interpretation when I read the book "Evidence that demands a verdict."
Jesus would have been taken as just another Prophet should he had only performed the wonders people witnessed without proving that He was, indeed, the Son of God, the Redeemer of all nations, the King of an everlasting reign, the long awaited Messiah promissed to Israel since time immemorial. Other prophets of God had resurrected the dead, healed diseases and cast evil spirits but did not claim to be The Messiah.
During His earthly ministry, Jesus devoted a lot of attention to explaining all passages of what we now know as the Old Testament where prophecies about Him were made. He was starting a new Covenant, opening a new era under His command; therefore, He needed to demonstrate without a shadow of doubt Who He really Was. And He did so by word and works within the constraints of what was already foretold and documented about Him in the Scriptures (e.g. see the passage of His reply to John's disciples.)
Who among the Jews of that time was prepared to see THE MESSIAH aprehended, judged, whipped, traded for a criminal and crucified alongside two thieves? That was not certainly their idea of a victorious King who would deliver them from the Romans. Even His disciples, after witnessing His miracles and teachings for three years, fled and hid in tremors. Their Master was unable to free Himself from an atrocious death at the hands of the evil-doing, Covenant-breaking Priests and Elders of Jerusalem.
It is then not surprising that Jesus left yet another clue of His Identity at the time He gave His last gasp. He uttered the first verse of Psalm 22, written centuries ago, which was a clear prophecy of His Martyrdom.
May His blessings shine upon our lives always.
Jorge S.