Why does it say in Joshua 7:24-26 That they killed all of the daughters and sons with Achan, but in 2Kings 14:6 it says that it is written in the Law of the Lord that no child shall die for his fathers sins?

Probably a misinterpretation or obedience of a direct command from God - if you read from the verse 10-15 it said that someone sinned & that they have to be killed so all the people don't suffer because of it. In the verse 14 it says that they are to go man by man, but in the 15 verse it says that the guilty party & all he has must be burned by fire - in those days your children were your property I suppose, so they were burned along with the guilty party. Maybe all his children were worshiping the same idols as they were his children & most parents teach their kids by example.

I just read that it is Deut 24:16 that states "The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin.".

Thank you for answer. I am continueing to read and finding that the more that I read the more that make since and the more that doesn't!!!!LOL

But thank you!

akjak24

Plus too you gotta remember that the whole Jewish race is a giant breeding program trying to create the messaiah - so if your line is cut (all your children killed) then you suffered the worst punishment available to the Jews - You cannot be one of the grandfathers of Jesus if all your kids are dead.